Latest Test 8020 Experience & 8020 Valid Exam Registration
Latest Test 8020 Experience & 8020 Valid Exam Registration
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PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q29-Q34):
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following best describes the role of the compliance department?
- A. The compliance department is responsible for implementing the first line's compliance risk management controls.
- B. The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the auditor's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
- C. The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the board's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
- D. The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the first line's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Three Lines of Defense Model
The compliance department functions as the second line of defense, ensuring oversight over the first line's compliance controls.
It does not directly implement controls but monitors and advises on compliance risk management.
Responsibilities of the Compliance Department
Ensures regulatory compliance with laws, policies, and industry standards.
Monitors and enforces risk management controls within business operations.
Provides advisory and training on compliance risks.
Why Answer D is Correct
The first line of defense (business operations) is responsible for executing compliance controls.
The compliance department (second line) provides oversight and governance to ensure compliance adherence.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . The compliance department is responsible for implementing the first line's compliance risk management controls.
Incorrect - The first line (business units) implement compliance controls, while compliance oversees.
B . The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the auditor's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
Incorrect - Internal audit is part of the third line of defense, not directly overseen by compliance.
C . The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the board's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
Incorrect - The board provides high-level governance; compliance ensures business adherence to regulations.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Governance & Compliance Oversight Framework
Basel Committee's Guidelines on Compliance Risk Management
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the follow does the risk function typically have responsibility for?
- A. Documenting its activities, typically by developing a Risk Management Manual and set of Risk Policies.
- B. Putting in place the servers, firewalls and software to ensure cyber security.
- C. Creating a trial balance, balance sheet statement and cash flow statement.
- D. Documenting its activities, typically by operating and then recording the daily operation of controls.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Role of the Risk Function
The risk function is responsible for documenting, monitoring, and overseeing risk policies and frameworks.
It ensures the organization maintains structured risk governance, reporting, and compliance.
Key Responsibilities
Developing Risk Management Manuals to define risk appetite, risk frameworks, and risk governance structures.
Creating Risk Policies that align with regulatory standards and internal controls.
Why Answer B is Correct
The risk function primarily develops, implements, and maintains risk management frameworks, which include formal manuals and policies.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Documenting its activities, typically by operating and then recording the daily operation of controls.
Incorrect - The first line of defense (business units) handles daily operational controls, not the risk function.
C . Putting in place the servers, firewalls, and software to ensure cybersecurity.
Incorrect - Cybersecurity is an IT responsibility, while the risk function oversees cyber risk frameworks.
D . Creating a trial balance, balance sheet statement, and cash flow statement.
Incorrect - These are financial accounting responsibilities, not risk management duties.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Governance Framework for Risk Management
Basel Risk Management Principles
NEW QUESTION # 31
Under the previous Basel II approach, which was not an approach for operational risk?
- A. Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA).
- B. Basic Indicator Approach (BIA).
- C. The Standardized Approach (TSA).
- D. Alternative Measurement Approach (AMA).
Answer: D
Explanation:
Overview of Basel II Approaches for Operational Risk
Basel II introduced three main approaches to calculating capital requirements for operational risk:
Basic Indicator Approach (BIA)
The Standardized Approach (TSA)
Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA)
Why Answer D is Correct
Alternative Measurement Approach (AMA) is not a recognized Basel II approach.
The correct term under Basel II was Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA).
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Basic Indicator Approach (BIA).
Correct - A simple approach where capital is set as a fixed percentage of gross income.
B . The Standardized Approach (TSA).
Correct - Categorizes operational risk into business lines, each with assigned risk factors.
C . Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA).
Correct - Uses internal models to calculate capital requirements based on loss data, scenario analysis, and risk controls.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
Basel II Framework for Operational Risk (2004)
PRMIA Risk Management Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 32
Two of the four key resources that are regarded as critical to maintain confidence and calibrate Risk Appetite to are?
- A. Strong regulatory assessment and net earnings.
- B. Quality human resources and reputation.
- C. Net earnings and capital.
- D. Capital expenditure and liquidity.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Key Resources for Calibrating Risk Appetite
Risk appetite defines how much risk an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives.
Two of the most critical resources for maintaining confidence and setting risk appetite are net earnings and capital.
Why Net Earnings and Capital are Critical
Net earnings reflect profitability and financial stability, influencing risk-taking capacity.
Capital ensures that the institution can absorb losses and meet regulatory requirements.
Basel III emphasizes capital adequacy as a core measure of financial resilience.
Why Answer B is Correct
Net earnings support operational stability, while capital determines how much risk an institution can bear.
Both are used to define and calibrate risk appetite levels.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Capital expenditure and liquidity.
Incorrect - Capital expenditure is an investment measure, not a direct risk appetite determinant.
C . Strong regulatory assessment and net earnings.
Incorrect - Regulatory assessments are important but do not directly set risk appetite.
D . Quality human resources and reputation.
Incorrect - HR and reputation are important for governance but do not directly influence risk capital and earnings stability.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Risk Appetite Framework
Basel III Capital and Earnings Management Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 33
For the FTX case study, what was the "backdoor" used for?
- A. It allowed trading firm Alameda to borrow S65 billion of clients' money from the exchange without their permission.
- B. It allowed a stable coin to be removed from the ledger and added to the balance sheet.
- C. It allowed currency traders to smooth profits and conceal losses for over two years.
- D. It allowed a rapid pace of acquisitions but poor integration of acquired companies.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The FTX collapse involved fraudulent fund mismanagement, where FTX executives created a "backdoor" to allow Alameda Research (FTX's sister trading firm) to borrow client funds without their consent.
Step 1: The "Backdoor" in FTX
The backdoor was a hidden code in FTX's system, allegedly created by Sam Bankman-Fried, which allowed Alameda to access customer deposits without triggering alerts to auditors or compliance teams.
Alameda used these funds for risky trading strategies and investments, leading to the eventual collapse of FTX when a liquidity crunch exposed the missing funds.
Step 2: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("allowed a stablecoin to be removed from the ledger and added to the balance sheet") Incorrect because FTX's fraud involved misuse of customer funds, not just a stablecoin misclassification.
Option C ("allowed currency traders to smooth profits and conceal losses for over two years") Incorrect because this sounds more like LIBOR-rigging scandals, whereas FTX misappropriated client funds.
Option D ("allowed a rapid pace of acquisitions but poor integration of acquired companies") Incorrect because FTX's collapse was due to financial fraud, not poor acquisition strategy.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Financial Crime Risk Management - Discusses insider risk and fraudulent misappropriation of funds.
FTX Collapse Reports - SEC, CFTC, and DOJ filings confirm that Alameda had unauthorized access to client funds.
Final Conclusion:
FTX's backdoor enabled Alameda to take $65 billion in client funds without permission, making Option B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 34
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